Adobe illustrator cc 2015 certification quizlet free.Adobe Illustrator CC 2015 19.2.1 (x 86x 64) Portable

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Blood Transfus. If the node disappears, it most likely was inflammatory in nature.
 
 

Bocconi University – A scholarship in memory of Maya

 

Acute adrenal insufficiency does not respond to vasopressors. Additionally, it can mimic sepsis. However, he does not meet SIRS criteria.

Patients that have had major surgery should always be monitored for signs of internal hemorrhaging. Although his serum calcium is shown to be low C , this should be corrected for hypoalbuminemia. His corrected serum calcium is 8. Although he may be volume depleted A , this would not cause hypoglycemia or hyperkalemia. Loss of catecholamine production E may accompany Addisonian crisis and is also seen after removing a pheochromocytoma.

It is associated with hypotension and hypoglycemia; however, it will not cause hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. The patient most likely has hypocalcemia. It is thought to be related to temporary ischemia to the adjacent parathyroid glands. Patients will complain of numbness and tingling in their hands and feet, as well as around the mouth.

These patients should be managed with prompt oral calcium supplementation. Oral calcitriol may be added to increase calcium absorption from the gut. Some centers routinely check the postoperative PTH level for the purposes of anticipating hypocalcemia. IV calcium gluconate or chloride may be given in these circumstances, but its use can generally be avoided when patients are carefully monitored postoperatively.

Symptoms of hypomagnesemia A are indistinguishable from hypocalcemia; however, low magnesium levels are not associated with thyroidectomy.

Disturbances in potassium C and thyroid hormone D would not cause the symptoms described. This patient most likely has an ectopic production of erythropoietin leading to high levels of hemoglobin and hematocrit. This paraneoplastic syndrome, termed polycythemia vera, is classically associated with pheochromocytoma, renal cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, and hemangioblastoma A, D—E.

Paragangliomas arise from extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue, with the most common location being in the abdomen organ of Zuckerkandl. They are essentially identical on a cellular level to intra-adrenal pheochromocytomas. The diagnosis is made by biochemical analysis followed by imaging localization.

It is particularly important to consider a whole body functional scan due to the higher propensity for multifocal and metastatic disease. There is currently no way to establish the diagnosis of malignancy in pheochromocytoma based on histopathologic evaluation A. However, there are tumor characteristics that are associated with higher risk e. Malignancy is determined by the development of metastatic disease, defined by a recurrence in an area that normally does not have any chromaffin tissue lymph nodes or a distant site such as the liver or lungs.

Biomolecular markers D can differentiate a functional tumor from nonfunctional, but is unable to rule out malignancy. Similarly, intractable hypertension E is not a characteristic of malignancy. The most important step in the diagnostic workup of a thyroid nodule is to obtain a tissue sample. This is best obtained via fine-needle aspiration and is best done under ultrasound guidance.

Thyroid nodules greater than 1 cm in size, nodules with ultrasound characteristics suggestive of malignancy internal microcalcifications, e. CT A or MRI B would be appropriate for patients found to have clinical or sonographic evidence of locally advanced thyroid cancer that may extend into the aerodigestive tract or substernal region. Open biopsy D , done by removing an entire thyroid lobe, should be done next if FNA results are suspicious for a follicular neoplasm.

Nuclear scanning E has a very limited role in the preoperative setting. It is more beneficial in the postoperative setting to look for recurrent or metastatic malignancy. This patient has a compromised airway and is in moderate respiratory distress.

Normally, the first step to ensure an airway is via endotracheal intubation B. However, a neck hematoma is in a closed space that leads to compression of the airway that may render safe intubation difficult or impossible. As such, the first step is to immediately open the neck wound at the bedside to decompress the hematoma. This will typically relieve the airway obstruction.

The patient can then be transported emergently to the operating room for intubation, wound exploration, adequate hemostasis, and subsequent wound closure C. Although thyroidectomy is considered a safe procedure, one well-known complication is airway obstruction following bleeding and hematoma formation which occurs within the first 24 h after thyroidectomy.

Checking oxygen saturation D or waiting for labs E is never appropriate for a patient with a compromised airway. The superior laryngeal nerve lies adjacent to the superior thyroid artery and is thus at high risk of being injured during mobilization of the thyroid, particularly the superior pole. The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve permits singing in a high pitch. Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve on one side results in a paralyzed vocal cord in a median or paramedian position.

This manifests as hoarseness A and sometimes aspiration. If both recurrent laryngeal nerves were injured during a total thyroidectomy, then both vocal cords could be paralyzed, and this may lead to a compromised airway which may necessitate a permanent tracheostomy E.

A droop in the corner of the mouth results from injury to the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve. The surgical treatment of hyperparathyroidism depends on whether the pathology is a single adenoma most common, remove single gland , more than one adenoma remove abnormal ones , or four gland hyperplasia remove 3.

Distinguishing these entities is not always obvious. Because of the short half-life of PTH about 4 min , intraoperative rapid PTH testing aids in determining the completeness of parathyroid resection. The most commonly used protocol involves drawing PTH levels at the time of gland excision and again 10 min post-excision.

Given the small size of the parathyroid glands, it is generally not recommended to biopsy all of them for frozen section B , as such a biopsy may render all the glands ischemic. Transient hypocalcemia is expected following parathyroidectomy so postoperative serum calcium level D is not indicative of cure. Oral calcium supplementation can help alleviate minor symptoms. Intraoperative ultrasound A is sometimes used when the abnormally enlarged gland cannot be found.

Sestamibi E may be used if recurrent or persistent hyperparathyroidism develops, but is not routinely used for confirmation of successful surgery. Sestamibi scanning involves using a radioisotope, technetium m, which is taken up by cells with high mitochondrial activity. It is more accurate for single adenomas than for four gland hyperplasia. Sestamibi scanning and to a lesser extent ultrasound B are the most frequently used imaging tests to localize the involved gland s in primary hyperparathyroidism.

Localizing studies are generally not indicated in secondary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, since multiple-gland hyperplasia is the expected underlying pathology.

Preoperative FNA D is not helpful in the workup of primary hyperparathyroidism. If localizing scans are negative, yet the diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism is clearly established, surgery is still performed at which time intraoperative exploration of all four glands E is performed. With the increasing use of routine laboratory testing, most patients with primary hyperparathyroidism are currently discovered incidentally in asymptomatic patients.

Although the patients may be asymptomatic, long-standing hyperparathyroidism can lead to kidney injury and osteoporosis. Evidence of such should be sought out via bone mineral density testing as well as calculation of creatinine clearance. For patients with asymptomatic hyperparathyroidism diagnosed through laboratory screening, a consensus statement recommended the following indications for surgery:.

The patient described meets the age criterion for surgical intervention. The surgical treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism due to four gland hyperplasia is to remove 3.

An acceptable alternative is to remove all four glands and to reimplant half of a gland within the muscles of the forearm. That way if the patient develops recurrent hyperparathyroidism, additional parathyroid tissue can be removed from the forearm under local anesthesia as opposed to re-operative neck surgery with the attendant risk of cranial nerve injury. Removal of all four glands B is not recommended as it will render the patient permanently hypocalcemic with a lifelong need for calcium supplementation.

Observation A would not be appropriate for patients meeting criteria for surgery. Patients not selected for surgical therapy require biochemical monitoring of serum calcium and serum creatinine annually D. Bone mineral density should be measured every 1—2 years. Cinacalcet E , a calcimimetic, is mainly used to treat secondary hyperparathyroidism seen in patients with renal failure.

It may be considered to reduce the serum calcium in patients who are not candidates for surgery. A chest X-ray is routinely performed to rule out a concurrent primary lung cancer or pulmonary metastases.

This is important as a majority of laryngeal and lung cancers are attributed to smoking. In addition, the most common location for distant metastasis of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma is the lungs. This patient most likely has malignant otitis externa secondary to otomycosis.

Aspergillus niger is the most common cause of otomycosis and can present very similarly to otitis externa. However, patients with otomycosis will complain of an intense fullness in the ear and pruritus, and physical exam will be significant for a gray exudate from the affected ear. Unlike otitis media, patients with otomycosis will have a normal-appearing tympanic membrane as this typically affects the external ear canal. Depending on the extent of local spread, patients can present with a myriad of symptoms including blindness, headache, seizure, and coma.

CT scan of the head will help evaluate the extent of damage and infiltration and help guide surgical management e. Answer choices A—C are all common causes of otitis media with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common organism.

Mycoplasma D has been associated with bullous myringitis, which is characterized by vesicular inflammation of the tympanic membrane and is seen most commonly with untreated otitis media.

Patients will present with very tender ear canals, and otoscopy shows large red vesicles on the tympanic membrane. It can present with fevers, neck pain, neck swelling, dental pain, dysphagia, and drooling.

This can be life threatening as it can lead to airway obstruction. The majority of cases follow dental procedures which allow bacteria from a tooth infection to migrate into the submandibular space.

Patients with labored breathing and marked swelling require an immediate airway. This may be achieved via endotracheal intubation or alternatively via a surgical airway cricothyroidotomy or tracheostomy.

The neck infection will then need immediate surgical drainage, A but this is best accomplished in the operating room. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C and IV fluids D are also necessary, but should not be prioritized over the airway. A solitary enlarged lymph node that persists beyond 3 weeks particularly in a middle-aged male smoker should be considered a metastatic lymph node until proven otherwise.

Oftentimes, the patient will have symptoms such as hoarseness, persistent sore throat, ulcerative lesions that will guide the workup.

But if no symptoms are present, a flexible nasopharyngoscopy is used initially to evaluate the nasal cavities, nasopharynx, oropharynx, hypopharynx, and glottis to look for a site of primary tumor. FNA is subsequently performed for to confirm that the solitary neck mass is a metastatic lymph node.

If the primary is still not evident, the next step is to try to identify the location of the primary tumor using a panendoscopy also termed triple endoscopy with random biopsies. This involves a complete endoscopic evaluation of the upper aerodigestive track, including laryngoscopy C , esophagoscopy, and bronchoscopy under general anesthesia in the operating room.

A neck dissection B would not be considered until after panendoscopy. Radiation and chemotherapy D may be used as adjuncts depending on the stage and grade of the primary tumor.

Mastoiditis usually occurs days to weeks after an episode of acute otitis media. Patients present with fevers and complaints of a red, swollen, and tender area behind the ear mastoid process. Physical exam may reveal a displaced ear on the affected side. The diagnosis can be confirmed with a CT scan of the mastoid process and is recommended for patients suspected of having mastoiditis. Patients with CT-confirmed acute surgical mastoiditis are candidates for mastoidectomy with insertion of a tympanostomy tube E.

Observation A is not an appropriate management for patients with mastoiditis. Oral corticosteroids B are not considered part of the management of acute mastoiditis.

Augmentin D would be an appropriate choice for patients with acute otitis media suspected of having a resistant strain. This patient most likely has torus palatinus, a bony benign mass located on the hard palate of the mouth.

The cause is unknown. It occurs more frequently in women and those of Asian descent. There is no associated malignant transformation. Biopsy C is not warranted and patients only need reassurance. Operative management A with surgical removal would be indicated only for symptomatic patients e. There is no medical management B available for torus palatinus.

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a rare tumor arising from the epithelium of the nasopharynx, occurs more frequently in patients of Asian descent and those infected with EBV E. However, a bony outgrowth of the hard palate would not be expected in these patients. Although it occurs infrequently, brain abscesses are a complication of acute otitis media. It shows many of same manifestations as a brain tumor space occupying but with a much shorter timetable week or two.

Patients typically have a fever, acute onset of headache, focal neurologic findings e. Treatment is open drainage by a neurosurgeon.

All these patients should also be started on empiric antibiotics. Although controversial, some clinicians also administer corticosteroids as it may have some benefit in decreasing the growth of the abscess and preventing cerebral edema.

Ring-enhancing lesions and seizures can also be found in patients with CNS lymphoma, toxoplasmosis, or neurocysticercosis. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine A would be the appropriate choice to treat patients with toxoplasmosis. Patients with neurocysticercosis should be started on antiparasitics, such as albendazole, and corticosteroids B. Antiepileptics D can be used to manage her acute condition, but it is unlikely that she also has a concurrent seizure disorder obviating the need for long-term antiepileptic therapy.

Chemotherapy and radiation E would be considered in patients with brain malignancies. Laryngeal papillomas or recurrent respiratory papillomatosis is a condition caused by human papilloma virus HPV types 6 and Infection with the virus can lead to benign papillary tumors of the larynx cauliflower-like growths and presents primarily with hoarseness. It rarely gives rise to laryngeal carcinoma.

Laser fulguration can be performed to destroy the papillary growths. Laryngectomy D would not be appropriate. Antiviral agents e. Sialolithiasis salivary ductal stones can increase the risk of developing a tumor of the gland. Lemon drops will stimulate saliva production and help facilitate passage of the stone. Pleomorphic adenoma is benign and considered the most common neoplasm of the parotid gland.

The greater auricular nerve is a branch of the cervical plexus C2—C3 and provides cutaneous sensation to the lower portion of the ear, including the earlobe. The facial nerve A , which traverses through the two lobes of the parotid gland, can also be injured and will present with facial droop.

Injury to the trigeminal nerve C can cause widespread numbness in the face. However, this type of injury occurs rarely because of the deep location, immediate branching, and redundancy of these nerves. An injured spinal accessory nerve D will present with partial paralysis of the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles.

The auricular branch of the vagus nerve E provides cutaneous sensation to the ear canal, not the earlobe. The most appropriate recommendation for a young patient presenting with a newly discovered, isolated, and enlarged cervical node is observation with follow-up and reexamination in 3 weeks.

If the node disappears, it most likely was inflammatory in nature. However, if this patient presented with any red-flag symptoms e.

CT scan B, C with contrast is the initial preferred imaging modality for a solitary neck mass that is concerning for malignancy following a careful head and neck examination.

FNA A is indicated for neck masses that are persistent, enlarging, or suspicious for malignancy. Panendoscopy E is performed in the operating room in the setting of a metastatic neck lymph node when the primary is occult. Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is caused by the parainfluenza virus and primarily affects young children.

The cough associated with this condition is described as a low-pitched seal-like bark. Patients are at risk for airway obstruction and will require intubation if they appear to be in respiratory distress. Management includes steroids and aerosolized racemic epinephrine. Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn A is caused by surfactant deficiency.

It occurs within 2 days of birth and presents with cyanosis, nasal flaring, crackles, and expiratory grunting. Epiglottitis C is a rapidly progressive infection of the epiglottis, most commonly due to Haemophilus influenzae type B. Patients with epiglottitis may require intubation or even tracheostomy due to airway compromise from the swollen epiglottis.

Laryngomalacia E is a congenital abnormality of the laryngeal cartilage and can result in collapse of the supraglottic structures in newborns, leading to airway obstruction. Infants with laryngomalacia should be fed upright and remain in this position for at least 30 min after each feed. The larynx is the most common site for foreign body aspiration in children younger than 1, while the trachea C, D and right mainstem bronchus A are the most common sites in older children.

The left mainstem bronchus B is a less frequent site for foreign body aspiration owing to its acute angle as it enters the lung versus an obtuse angle in the right. Patients with foreign body aspiration may have wheezing, but using a bronchodilator increases the risk of further pushing the foreign body down the airway. Order a chest X-ray if there is a suspicion for a foreign body obstruction.

Bronchoscopy is recommended for definitive diagnosis. Extracting the foreign body requires a rigid bronchoscopy. The most common type of parotid gland tumor is a pleomorphic adenoma.

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor. Facial nerve involvement is more suggestive of malignant transformation. The second most common malignancy is adenoid cystic carcinoma D. The triad of dysphagia, esophageal webs e. The pathophysiology still remains unclear but is most likely multifactorial. Barium esophagram is one of the most sensitive methods and diagnostic tests of choice to confirm the presence of esophageal webs, which appears as a thin projection off the postcricoid, anterior esophageal wall.

If esophagram is equivocal, esophagoscopy D can be used next. Laryngoscopy A—B or bronchoscopy C is not typically required in the workup for Plummer-Vinson syndrome. However, if there is any concern for head and neck cancer e.

The initial test is to evaluate the larynx and vocal cords with indirect laryngoscopy in the office with administration of local anesthetic spray to the back of the throat. It is termed indirect, as it has a mirror that permits indirect visualization of the vocal cords. Structural abnormalities, such as masses, ulcers, or mucosal irregularities, may be noted, as well as motion of the vocal cords.

Direct laryngoscopy E is done in the OR under general anesthesia. It involves insertion of a rigid metal tube directly into the larynx and allows for biopsies to be taken. Given the high likelihood of cancer, antibiotics B or reassurance C would be inappropriate.

They most often present with local invasion of the fungi into the facial sinuses and eventually the brain e. Black eschar on the nose and discharge from the nares is characteristic of mucormycosis. Management consists of immediate antifungal therapy with liposomal amphotericin B and surgical debridement. Antifungal therapy alone would be inappropriate, as well as antibiotics A,C—D.

Hyperbaric oxygen E is currently being investigated as an adjunctive therapy for select patients with mucormycosis. Acalculous cholecystitis is a condition seen in patients that are critically ill such as those with multiorgan trauma, burns, or recent major surgery. The diagnosis can be difficult for several reasons.

Patients are critically ill so a history may be unobtainable and physical exam may be unreliable. The imaging test of choice is ultrasound US.

Findings suggestive of acalculous cholecystitis include gallbladder wall thickening and pericholecystic fluid; however, such findings are not consistent. However, false positives are seen in patients who have been NPO for a prolonged period which many of these critically ill patients have. Gallstones are not implicated in this condition, and will not be seen on ultrasonography.

Treatment of acalculous cholecystitis includes broad-spectrum antibiotics followed by urgent percutaneous cholecystostomy if the patient is critically ill or cholecystectomy laparoscopic vs. Mild hyperamylasemia can be seen with many intra-abdominal conditions including cholecystitis or bowel ischemia. Burn victims are at risk for stress-related mucosal damage Curling ulcer secondary to an inability to maintain the integrity of the gastrointestinal mucosal barrier.

This may subsequently lead to perforated viscus D which will present with an acute abdomen and a plain film demonstrating free air under the diaphragm. Cholangiohepatitis C is associated with biliary parasites such as Clonorchis sinensis and is characterized by brown pigment stones that result from biliary sludge and dead bacterial cell bodies. The most likely diagnosis is acute pancreatitis secondary to gallstones.

More than half of all cases of pancreatitis are associated with either gallstones or alcohol. Patients with gallstone pancreatitis have extremely high serum amylase sometimes in the thousands and ALT greater than 3x the upper limit of normal as compared to other etiologies. A biliary etiology of pancreatitis is further supported by the elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase which suggest at least a temporary obstruction of the common bile duct by a gallstone.

Most gallstones only transiently obstruct the common bile duct and pass on their own. Pancreatitis due to alcohol is seen in patients with long-standing heavy alcohol abuse which is not suggested by the history in this patient , and not following a onetime binge. Chronic pancreatitis is rare with gallstones. It is most often seen in association with long-standing alcohol abuse. Amylase and lipase levels are often not elevated. The patient is presenting with painless jaundice, which should be considered as due to malignancy until proven otherwise.

Gallstones typically cause sudden obstruction of the biliary tree and often harbor bacteria. They are almost always associated with pain and often trigger an inflammatory response. It is associated with retroperitoneal bleeding, as seen with hemorrhagic pancreatitis.

The presentation is most consistent with pancreatitis secondary to alcohol. Lipase is more specific for pancreatitis than amylase.

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Dbms Project. LP05 – UTS. NewsIn SL Communication Protocol. We all believe that naming a scholarship after her would be a tangible sign to remember Maya and keep her values alive.

Those who have been so lucky to cross Maya on their path know well the impressive legacy that she leaves behind; and those who have not met her may think of her as an ethical colleague, alwyas available, prepared and generous. In her memory we wish to raise funds for a scholarship, so that the strength of her contribution can be passed on to the new generations. We are sure that you all will participate with great joy and affection, thinking that this gesture will leave a testimony of enormous value, an embodiment of hope and trust.

Plus you will be able to learn about all the necessary terms and theories they might ask in the exam. When you feel confident in working in Adobe Illustrator CC and are ready to schedule your exam you will first need to find an Adobe Certified Authorised Testing Centre near you. These testing centres are run by the company called Certiport. Visit their site to find out more about their testing centres and the available dates. The good thing is that you immediately get your results at the end of the exam!

Plus an email with your certification. You will also receive badges when passing an exam. Which you will be able to share online through a portal called Acclaim.

Getting certified by Adobe is a big step in your creative career. However, if you’re planning to get an internship or design job you will also need to present a strong portfolio of work. Now if you are just starting out then this might be difficult. He was voted to be one of the top 10 Adobe instructors in the world by student feedback in He feels it his mission to share his insights of the design industry and its latest trends with beginners and creative professionals around the World.

 

Adobe illustrator cc 2015 certification quizlet free

 

Key Concepts: panning, zooming, pasteboard, etc. Use rulers. Key Concepts: showing and hiding rulers, changing the measurement unit on rulers, adjusting and resetting ruler origin c. Use guides and grids. Use views and modes to work efficiently with vector graphics. Open artwork. Place assets in an Illustrator document. Key Concepts: embedding, linking, replacing, copying and pasting, import options, etc. Use the Links panel. Set the active fill and stroke colors.

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Use the Color Guide panel to select coordinated colors. Open and browse libraries of included brushes, symbols, graphic styles, and patterns. Edit preset brushes, symbols, graphic styles, and patterns. Key Concepts: stroke, fill, brushes, brush types, width tool, etc. Official guidelines 3. Use the Layers panel to modify layers. Manage and work with multiple layers in a complex project. Key Concepts: using sublayers, Paste Remembers Layers, hierarchy and stacking order, selecting and targeting objects using the Layers panel, etc.

Adjust the opacity of a layer. Key Concepts: Transparency panel and Opacity masks. Create, apply, and manipulate clipping masks. Official guidelines 4. Create graphics or artwork using a variety of tools. Use type tools to add typography. Key Concepts: difference between area type, point type, and type on a path; placeholder text. Use appropriate character settings. Key Settings: font, size, style, alignment, kerning, tracking, leading, horizontal and vertical scale, color used to enhance readability and hierarchy, enhanced type, etc.

Use appropriate paragraph settings. Key Settings: indentation, alignment, paragraph spacing d. Convert text to graphics. Manage text flow. Key Concepts: multiple text areas, managing overflow text, threading text, wrapping text, etc. Select objects using a variety of tools. Key Concepts: targeting vs selecting, saving selections, selecting based on object attributes color, stroke, opacity , etc. Modify and refine selections using various methods.

Key Concepts: keyboard modifiers, selecting multiple objects with selection tools or Layers panel, moving and grouping objects, regular Selection tool vs Direct Selection tool vs Lasso tool vs Group Selection tool, etc. Group or ungroup selections. Key Concepts: grouped objects, Isolation Mode, etc. Modify artboards. Key Tools: Artboard tool; resizing, cropping, and copy and paste art and artboards within and between documents, etc.

Key Concept: understanding the relationship between the art and the artboard. Rotate, flip, and transform individual layers, objects, selections, groups, or graphical elements.

Key Concepts: scaling, scale options, transforming, warping, distorting, skewing, using distortion tools or menu options, Repeat objects, etc.

Apply basic auto-correction methods and tools. Key Tools: Simplify tool, Smooth tool, Join tool, etc. Repair and reconstruct graphics. Evaluate or adjust the appearance of objects, selections, or layers. Key Concepts: fill and stroke, Appearance panel, brushes, Eyedropper tool, etc. Use Image Trace to create vectors from bitmap images. Key Concepts: Trace presets, tracing settings, expanding, etc. Use effects to modify images. Key Concepts: identifying the difference between raster and vector effects; drop shadows, feathers, and glows; editing applied effects, etc.

Create, edit, and save Graphic Styles. Key Concepts: creating, deleting, and managing graphic styles; breaking links to graphic styles, etc. Expand the appearance of objects. Key Concepts: expanding transformations, stroke, effects.

Official guidelines 5. Verify project specifications. Key Concepts: setting document color mode color space , resolution raster effects , pixel dimensions, metadata, etc. Save in the native file format for Illustrator. Key Concepts: compatibility, save options including Cloud documents. Save graphics in appropriate formats for print or screen.

Key Concepts: file formats including vector vs. Export project elements. Key Concepts: exporting assets, exporting specific selections or artboards, exporting for screens, etc. Package an Illustrator project. Key Concepts: font and image management and troubleshooting, file packages, etc. Learn Premiere Pro. Follow along with tutorials and projects to master the basics, refine your skills, or find inspiration. Watch series. Level up. Earn certifications for both Illustrator and Photoshop to receive an additional Specialty Credential and gain recognition as an Adobe Certified Professional in Visual Design.

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